Is the idea of
a self-contradictory constitution - that is, a constitution which under one
provision permits some state of affairs, but under another prohibits it - odd
at all? The answer is, actually, no. Consider these examples:
Congress
imposes a tax on the purchase of television ad time, but only for political
ads. That's presumably perfectly okay under the tax power, but certainly a
breach of free speech under the First Amendment.
A local police
officer stops a black motorist who makes a turn without using her turn signal.
The stop has an objectively valid basis and so under current interpretation would
not violate the Fourth Amendment, which regulates "seizures,"
including stops. But if the reason for the stop was actually a deliberate
program of racial profiling, it would be unconstitutional race discrimination
under the Fourteenth Amendment's Equal Protection clause.
What about a
state statute that provided for the death penalty for homicides, if they are
committed by African-Americans? Clearly, even if the Constitution affirmatively
declared that the death penalty is not unconstitutional under the due process
clause (which permits the deprivation of life "with due process of
law"), this statute would be unconstitutional under the Equal Protection
clause. And that's true even though the Due Process and Equal Protection
clauses are both in the same Amendment, the Fourteenth. (The Fourteenth
Amendment's due process clause applies to the states; the Fifth Amendment'a due
process clause applies to the federal government.)
But, one might
say, even though the Constitution contains multiple provisions and those
provisions naturally can have differing consequences for the constitutionality
of particular government actions, at least those provisions' intersection must
be determined in light of their original meaning. A provision can't somehow
expand in meaning to swallow some situation it formerly didn't apply to.
This contention
is of course just an instance of the general idea that the constitution's
meaning was fixed at the time of its adoption. That's not my view, as I've made
clear elsewhere, but I want to offer one more example of our law taking a different
approach.
This is
Bolling v. Sharpe, the case that held school segregation in the District of
Columbia unconstitutional. Why didn't Brown v. Board of Education, issued the
same day, decide this? Because Brown was a decision under the Fourteenth
Amendment's Equal Protection clause, which applies only to states. There is no textual Equal Protection clause applying to the federal government. So how does Brown's command come to apply to the schools in D.C., which are not governed by
the Fourteenth Amendment because the District of Columbia is not a state? The
answer is: through the equal protection component of the Fifth Amendment's due
process clause.
But how do we know that that implicit equal protection
component applies to school segregation? After all, the Fifth Amendment – which
itself has never been amended -- was adopted at a time when the Constitution
explicitly, if euphemistically, “contemplated” (to use Scalia's language)
slavery. The Thirteenth Amendment made slavery unconstitutional, so we can say
that the Fifth Amendment no longer contemplates that, but what about school
segregation? The Fourteenth Amendment – which the Brown Court interpreted as banning school segregation (though that
may well not have been what the Fourteenth Amendment’s adopters thought it
meant) – doesn’t apply to the federal government. What the unchanged language
of the Fifth Amendment should be understood to “contemplate” now is the result
of the Supreme Court's interpretation of the Fourteenth Amendment and the
Court's conviction that “[i]n view of our decision that the Constitution
prohibits the states from maintaining racially segregated public schools, it
would be unthinkable that the same Constitution would impose a lesser duty on
the Federal Government.” In short, the Fifth Amendment’s meaning grew over time
to outlaw school segregation.
Justice
Scalia's opinion in Glossip v. Gross takes
for granted that because the constitution explicitly contemplates the existence
of capital punishment, that penalty could not legitimately be held
unconstitutional. But it turns out that’s simply not so.
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